RAS 2018 Pre: Answer Key-Solutions

Ras 2018 Pre Exam was held on August 5. This post has the answer key with reference to correct answer. This is in no way official answer key but an attempt towards providing a genuine answer key with sources both RajRAS & External ones. Aspirants should discuss & point out any errors in the discussion thread below the post.

RAS 2018 Pre Answer Key

Questions from Rajasthan:

Rajasthan Economy

Q1. Mitigating Poverty in Western Rajasthan (MPOWR) Programme is supported by:

  • JICA
  • IFAD & Ratan Tata Trust
  • CIDA
  • ADB

Ans. International Fund for Agriculture Development (IFAD) and Ratan Tata Trust

Reference: RajRAS: Summary Economic Review PDF Page 94

Q2. Main objective of Swavalamban Yojana in Rajasthan is:

  • (1) To impart training for unemployed
  • (2) To impart training to SC/ST and OBC unemployed girls.
  • (3) To provide employment in unorganised sector.
  • (4) To improve the living standard of poor women, widows, separated women and rural women.

Ans. To improve the living standard of poor women, widows, separated women and rural women.

Reference: RajRAS: Summary Economic Review PDF Page 65

Q3. Rajasthan Government has established the first Skill University in the state

  • Sikar
  • Ajmer
  • Jaipur
  • Kota

Ans. Jaipur

Reference: RajRAS: Economy of Rajasthan PDF Page 55

Q4. Which of the following item provide maximum revenue in the Revenue Receipts of Rajasthan budget in recent years ?

  • State Own’s Tax Revenue
  • Union Grant
  • Share in Central Taxes
  • Non-Tax Revenure

Ans. State Own’s Tax Revenue

Reference: RajRAS: Rajasthan Current Affairs Dec 2017 – Feb 2018 PDF Page 7

Q5. Which is the base year of Rajasthan’s general wholesale Price Index ?

  • 2005-2006
  • 2011-2012
  • 1999-2000
  • 2010-2011

Ans. 1999 – 2000

Reference: RajRAS: Summary Economic Review PDF Page 11

Q6. Growth rate of GSDP (Gross State Domestic Product) at constant prices (2011-12) for the year 2017-18 in Rajasthan was:

  • 4.15%
  • 10.67%
  • 6.23%
  • 7.16%

Ans. 7.16%

Reference: RajRAS: Summary Economic Review PDF Page 1

Rajasthan Geography & Agriculture:

Q7. Consider the following statements regarding the first Mega Food Park of Rajasthan established in March 2018:

  • (A) It was inaugurated by Union Minister for Food Processing Industries Harsimrat Kaur Badal
  • (B) It is known as Smart Mega Food Park
  • (C) It is located at Roopangarh in Ajmer

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Ans. Only A & B are correct.

  • Explanation: Name is: Greentech Mega Food Park Private Ltd
  • Reference: Rajasthan Current Affairs PDF March – April 2018 Page 6

Q8. National Research Centre on seed spices is located at:

  • Mandore, Jodhpur
  • Durgapura, Jaipur
  • Doomara, Ajmer
  • Beechwal, Bikaner

Ans. Doomara, Ajmer

Reference: NRCSS 

Q9. Solar observatory in Rajasthan is located at:

  • Udaipur
  • Ajmer
  • Jaipur
  • Kota

Ans. Udaipur

Reference: RajRAS Udaipur

Q10. Which of the following is not considered as oil field of Rajasthan ?

  • Ganga
  • Mangla
  • Saraswati
  • Aishwarya

Ans. Ganga

  • Mangla, Saraswati & Aishwarya – Barmer Sanchore Basin

Reference: RajRAS Hydrogen Basin Rajasthan

Q.11. From which area of Rajasthan the maximum crude oil production was received in the year 2017-18 (upto Dec. 2017)?

  • Jaisalmer Basin
  • Bikaner- Nagaur Basin
  • Barmer-Sanchore Basin
  • None of these

Ans. Barmer- Sanchore Basin

Reference: http://petroleum.rajasthan.gov.in/landmark-development.htm

Q12. In which of the following projects for the first time, sprinkler irrigation system has been made compulsory in Rajasthan ?

  • (1) Takli Project
  • (2) Parwan Project
  • (3) Narmada Canal Project
  • (4) Dholpur Lift Project

Ans. Narmada

Reference: National Water Mission Presentation Page 1

Q13. Which of the following thermal power projects has the highest installed power

  • Kota
  • Suratgarh
  • Chabbra
  • Kalisindh

Ans. Suratgarh

Reference:

Social Sector

Q14. A new software has been launched by Rajasthan government for monitoring of seasonal and non-communicable diseases as well as the trends of ailments found in specific areas. What is the name of this software?

  • Nidaan
  • Sehat
  • Cure
  • Upchar

Ans. Nidaan

Reference: https://www.rajras.in/index.php/rajasthan-current-affairs-may-2018/

Q15. Government of Rajasthan’s Post-Matric Scholarship Scheme for students of minority communities provide financial assistance to those having a combination of parental income and percentage of marks in previous examination. That combination is:

  • (1) less than 1.5 lakhs – at least 45%
  • (2) less than 2 lakhs – at least 50%
  • (3) less than 2.5 lakhs – at least 55%
  • (4) less than 1 lakh – at least 40%

Ans. less than 2 lakhs – at least 50%

Ref. Not Available (Springboard Key)

Q16. Which of the following is not the Unique Selling Proposition (USP) of Rajasthan in tourism sector?

  • (1) Forts, Palaces and Havelies
  • (2) Fairs and festivals
  • (3) Medical tourism
  • (4) Palace on Wheels train

Ans. Medical Tourism

Reference: RajRAS Tourism in Rajasthan

Q17. one of the following lakes of Rajasthan is not covered under National Lake Conservation Programme (NLCP)?

  • (1) Nakki Lake
  • (2) Swaroop Sagar Lake
  • (3) Ana Sagar Lake
  • (4) Fateh Sagar Lake

Ans. Swaroop Sagar

Reference: NLCP

Rajasthan Polity:

Q18. Which one of the following judges of Supreme Court of India has not worked in Rajasthan High Court as judge:

  • (1) Justice B. S. Chouhan
  • (2) Justice A. K. Mathur
  • (3) Justice R. C. Lahoti
  • (4) Justice N. M. Kasliwal

Ans. Justice R. C. Lahoti

Reference: Rajsthan HC

Q19. Who among the following has held the post of Protem Speaker, Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Rajasthan Legislative Assembly?

  • (1) Niranjan Nath Aacharya
  • (2) Shantilal Chaplot
  • (3) Paras Ram Madera
  • (4) Poonam Chand Vishnoi

Ans. Poonam Chand Vishnoi

Reference: lists of Speakers/Dspeakrs/Protermspeaker – on RajAssembly Site

Q20. Which of the following statements are correct in reference to rule of procedure for “Motion For Adjournment on a importance in matter of Public Rajasthan Legislative Assembly ?

  • (A) Speaker’s consent necessary to make motion.
  • (B) The motion shall raise a question of privilege
  • (C) The motion shall be restricted to a specific matter of recent occurrence,
  • (D) Not more than one such motion shall be made at the same sitting.

Ans.  A, C & D

Explanation: Privilege motion raises question of privilege.

Q21. Which of the following statements are correct in context to Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission?

  • (A) It was constituted on 18, January, 1999 by notification issued by Government of Rajasthan.
  • (B) The Commission became functional from March, 2000,
  • (C) Rajasthan Human Rights Commission is having one chairperson and 3 the members in accordance with provision of the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2006.
  • (D) One of its former Chairman’s has retired judge of Supreme Court of India.

Ans. A, B, D

Explanation: Consists of 1 Chairman & 2 Members

Reference: Rajasthan Polity PDF Page 81 | RajRAS State Human Right Commission

Q22. Which of the following Chief Ministers have not held the post of the leader of the Opposition in Rajasthan Legislative Assembly?

  • (A) Haridev Joshi
  • (B) Shivcharan Mathur
  • (C) Ashok Gehlot
  • (D) Vasundhara Raje

Ans. B & C

Reference: Leader of Opposition

Q23. After receiving complaint against following office bearer’s Lokayukta, Rajasthan cannot make investigation against:

  • (1) Chairman of the Sthyayi Samiti of Panchayat Samities
  • (2) Sarpanch and Panch
  • (3) Up-pramukh of Zila Parishad
  • (4) Pradhan and Up-pradhan of Panchayat Samities

Ans.  B

Reference: Lokayukta Workspace (Read in Hindi)

Q24. Which of the following Act/Rule of Rajasthan has a provision of a joint meeting of Gram Sabha ?

  • (1) Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Rules, 1996
  • (2) Rajasthan Panchayati Raj (Modification of provisions in their application to the Scheduled Area) Act, 1999
  • (3) Rajasthan Panchayati Raj (Modification of provisions in their application to the Scheduled Areas) Rules, 2011
  • (4) Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act, 1994

Ans 3 – 2011.

Reference: PESA Rules 2011 Page 5

Q25. Under the Provisions of the Article 368(2) of the Constitution of India, if a bill comes to Rajasthan Legislative Assembly after passing by Parliament of India for resolution to rectify, then:

  • (A) Resolution can be passed by Assembly.
  • (B) Resolution can be rejected by Assembly.
  • (C) No Amendment shall be proposed to such a resolution.

Ans. A,B, C

Explanation: Bills come through article 368(2)(e). As it needs just ratification so states cannot suggest amendment.

Rajasthan History, Art & Culture:

Q26. Which of the following rulers does not belong to Gurjara-Pratihar dynasty?

  • (1) Mahendrapal-I
  • (2) Devapal
  • (3) Bharatrabhatta-I
  • (4) Nagabhatta-1

Ans. BharatraBhatta -I

Reference: Wikipedia

Q27. In pre-medieval kingdoms of Rajasthan, the designation “Naimittika” was used for

  • (1) Head of public health department
  • (2) State astrologer
  • (3) Chief judicial officer
  • (4) Royal bard

Ans. State Astrologer

Reference TBA

Q28. The revolutionary, who was convicted in the Mahant Pyarelal Murder case:

  • (1) Shyamji Krishna Varma
  • (2) Kesari Singh Barhat
  • (3) Vijay Singh Pathik
  • (4) Zorawar Singh

Ans. Kesari Singh

Reference. Sent o Hazirabag Jail for 20 years on this charge

Q29. Who among the following negotiated Subordinate Alliances of 1817-18 with Princely States of Rajputana ?

  • (1) Charles Metcalf
  • (2) Arthur Wellesley
  • (3) John George
  • (4) David Ochterlony

Ans. Charles Metcalf

Reference: RajRAS British Treaty

Q30. Who was the editor of “Tyag Bhumi”

  • (1) Jai Narayan Vyas
  • (2) Devi Dutta Tripathi
  • (3) Rishi Dutt Mehta
  • (4) Hari Bhau Upadhyaya

Ans. Hari Bhau

Reference: Archive

Q31. Match the following:

  • Temple – City
  • i. Kameshwara Mahadev – a. Alwar
  • ii. Shitaleshwar b. Jodhpur
  • iii. Pipala Mata C. Jhalawar
  • iv. Nilkantha d. Pali

Choose the correct codes :

Ans.

  • i. Kameshwara Mahadev – pali
  • ii. Shitaleshwar – Jhalawar
  • iii. Pipala Mata —-Jodhpur
  • iv. Nilkantha- Alwar

Q32. Which of the following temples of the Chittorgarh Fort is a Jain temple?

  • (1) Saatveesh Devari
  • (2) Samiddheswar Temple
  • (3) Tulja Bhawani Temple
  • (4) Kumbh Shyam Temple

Ans. Saatveesh Devari

Q33. Which of the following painters does not belong to Alwar School of Painting?

  • (1) Bakasaram
  • (2) Nanakram
  • (3) Nandram
  • (4) Jamnadas

Ans. Nanakram

Q34. Which among the following is not Author correctly matched ?

Work

  • (1) Pagi ——– Chandra Prakash Deval
  • (2) Kodmade —- Meghraj Mukul
  • (3) Pagphero —- Mani Madhukar
  • (4) Bol Bharmali —- Yadvendra Sharma

Ans. Bol Bharmali —- Yadvendra Sharma

Q35. Gavari Devi was associated

  • (1) Mand
  • (2) Talahandi
  • (3) Thumari
  • (4) Langa

Ans. Mand

Q36. The princely state, which was not the part of Rajasthan Union formed on 25 March, 1948 ?

  • (1) Pratapgarh
  • (2) Udaipur
  • (3) Shahpura
  • (4) Bundi

Ans. Udaipur

Q37. The dance form related to Garasia Tribe is

  • (1) Loor
  • (2) Bam
  • (3) Terahtali
  • (4) Gava

Ans. Loor

Q38. Consider the following statements about Vijaydan Detha:

  • (A) Vijayadan Detha was a famous writer of Rajasthan, whose story was adapted as Charandas Chor play.
  • (B) Vijaydan Detha was a co-founder of Rupayan Sansthan.

Ans. Both (A) and (B) are true.

Rajasthan Geography & Human Resource:

Q39. What is the percentage of urban population in India and Rajasthan respectively as per census 2011?

  • (1) 34.15% and 24.87%
  • (2) 21.87% and 34.15%
  • (3) 31.15% and 24.87%
  • (4) 24.87% and 31.15%

Ans. 34.15% and 24.87%

Q40. Match List / with List Il and select the correct answer using code given below:

  • List-11 List-I
  • (Mountains) (Districts)
  • A Jalore (i) Barwada
  • B. Jaipur (ii) Jharola
  • C. Alwar (iii) Raghunathgarh
  • D. Sikar (iv) Bhangarh

Ans.

  • Jalore – Jharola
  • Jaipur -Barwada
  • Alwar – Bhangarh
  • Sikar – Raghunathgarh

Q41. Which of the given hills is an extension of vindhyan ranges in Rajasthan?

  • (1) Dora mountain
  • (2) Alwar hills
  • (3) Girwa hills
  • (4) Mukandara hills

Ans. Mukandara hills

Reference: Page 11/12 Geography PDF

Q42. The dust storms Rajasthan in May and June months are originating in caused due to

  • (A) origin of convectional currents at few places
  • (B) Aravalli hills are parallel to south westem winds
  • (C) origin of fast speedy casterly winds

Ans. Only (A) origin of convectional currents at few places

Q43. Which statements are correct from the following?

  • (A) Marble development and Conservation Rule – 2002
  • (B) Rajasthan Mineral Policy – 2015
  • (C) District Mineral Foundation Trust Rules – 2016
  • (D) Rajasthan Minor Mineral Concession Rules (Amended upto May 2016)

Ans. All of these

Q44. List-I (Major List-II (Beneficiary irrigation districts of project) irrigation projects)

  • A. Sidhmukh Project (i) Jalore and Barmer
  • B. Narmada Project (ii) Jalore, Pali and Jodhpur
  • C. Jawai (iii)Udaipur and Pratapgarh
  • D. Jakham (iv) Hanumangarh and Churu

Ans.

  • Sidhmukh Project – Hanumangarh and Churu
  • Narmada Project – Jalore and Barmer
  • Jawai – Jalore, Pali and Jodhpur
  • Jakham – Udaipur and Pratapgarh

Q146. Which among the following are important mineral based industries in Rajasthan?

  • (A) Zinc smelting industry
  • (B) Cement industry
  • (C) Electronic industry
  • (D) Marble industry Codes

Ans.

  • Zinc smelting industry
  • Cement industry
  • Marble industry Codes

Q45. Rajasthan are having lowest percentage of Scheduled Tribe population in their total population?

  • (1) Jhunjhunu and Churu
  • (2) Bikaner and Nagaur
  • (3) Ganganagar and Hanumangarh
  • (4) Sikar and Dholpur

Ans. Bikaner and Nagaur

Reference: Page 12 (40)  in PDF

Q46. Proposed oil refinery at Pachpadra, Barmer is a joint venture of

  • (1) OIL and Government of Rajasthan
  • (2) HPCL and Government of India
  • (3) HPCL and Government of Rajasthan
  • (4) ONGCL and Government of India

Ans. HPCL and Government of Rajasthan

Reference: Q 24: RAS Pre Basket 2

Q47. Rajasthan is almost a sole producer of which of the following minerals?

  • (A) Lead and zinc ores
  • (B) Copper ores
  • (C) Wollastonite
  • (D) Salenite

Ans.

  • Lead and zinc ores
  • Wollastonite
  • Salenite

Reference: Mines Department

Q48. Which is not a correct match ?

  • District ——-Mascot
  • (1) Jaisalmer – Great Indian Bustard
  • (2) Bhilwara – Peacock
  • (3) Sawai Madhopur – Lion
  • (4) Churu – Black Buck

Ans. Sawai Madhopur – Lion

Reference: RajRAS Mascot of Districts

Science & Technology

Q49. Which of the following is an example of a non-cellulosic fibre ?

  • (1) Nylon
  • (2) Rayon
  • (3) Jute
  • (4) Linen

Ans. Nylon

Q50. The waves used in common TV remote control are

  • (1) Gamma Rays
  • (2) X-Rays
  • (2) Infra Red Rays
  • (4) Ultra-violet Rays

Ans. Infra Red Rays

Q51. Which metal is generally used for coating of brass utensils to prevent copper contamination ?

  • (1) Lead
  • (2)Tin
  • (3) Aluminium
  • (4) Zinc

Ans. Tin

Q52. Waves of the Ultra High Frequency (UHF) range normally propagate by means of

  • (1) Surface waves
  • (2) Ground waves
  • (3) Sky Waves
  • (4) Space Waves

Ans. Space Waves

Q53. Which of the following polyherbal product has NOT been developed by DRDO

  • (1) Eczit
  • (2) Amtooth
  • (3) Nocdurna
  • (4) Lukoskin

Ans. Nocdurna

Q54. The machine language of computer is based on

  • Boolean Algebra
  • Matrix Algebra
  • Linear Algebra
  • Abstract Algebra

Ans. Boolean Algebra

Q55. Which of the following difference between Bluetooth and wi-fi is correct ?

  • (1) Bluetooth is used for Wireless Local Area Networks (WLAN) only whereas wi-fi is used for Wireless Wide Area Networks (WWAN) only.
  • (2) When information is transmitted between two devices using Bluetooth technology, the devices have to be in line of sight of each other, but when wi-fi technology is used the devices need not be in the line of sight of each other.
  • (3) Both the statements (Bluetooth uses 2.4 GHz radio frequency band, whereas wi-fi can use 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz frequency band.) & (Bluetooth is used for Wireless Local Area Networks (WLAN) only whereas wi-fi is used for Wireless Wide Area Networks (WWAN) only.) are correct in this context.
  • (4) Bluetooth uses 2.4 GHz radio frequency band, whereas wi-fi can use 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz frequency band

Ans. Bluetooth uses 2.4 GHz radio frequency band, whereas wi-fi can use 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz frequency band.

Q56. Consider the following pairs : Which of them are correctly matched.

  • A. Vikram Sarabhai Space Center (VSSC) – Trivandrum (Kerala)
  • B. UR Rao Satellite (URSC) Bengaluru
  • C. National Remote Sensing Center (NRSC) – Dehradun
  • D. Indian Institute of Remote Sensing (IIRC) – Hyderabad, Telegana

Ans.

  • Vikram Sarabhai Space Center (VSSC) – Trivandrum (Kerala)
  • B. UR Rao Satellite (URSC) Bengaluru

Q57. How many satellites were launched successfully by PSLV-C37 in a single flight on 15 February 2017?

  • A. 104
  • B. 98
  • C. 80
  • D. 72

Ans. 104

Q58. A particle having at least one dimension less than 10-7 metre, is known as

  • (1) Milli particle
  • (2) Nano particle
  • (3) Macro particle
  • (4) Micro particle

Ans. Nano particle

Q59. Match column I with column II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

  • A. Grape Sugar (i) Fructose
  • B. Fruit Sugar (ii) Sucrose
  • C. Milk Sugar (iii) Natural Sweetner
  • D. Table Sugar (iv) Glucose
  • E. Stevia (v) Lactose

Ans.

  • Grape Sugar – Glucose
  • Fruit Sugar – Fructose
  • Milk Sugar – Lactose
  • Table Sugar – Sucrose
  • Stevia -Natural Sweetner

Q60. In humans trisomy of chromosome number 21 is responsible for

  • (1) Klinefelter Syndrome
  • (2) Down Syndrome
  • (3) Turner Syndrome
  • (4) Haemophilia

Ans. Down Syndrome

Q61. India’s first Beyond-Visual Range (BVR) air-to-air missile indigenously designed & developed by Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO) is:

  • (1) Agni
  • (2) Astra
  • (3) Akash
  • (4) Prithvi

Ans. Astra

Q62. The basis of DNA finger printing is

  • (1) Errors in base sequence
  • (2) DNA replication
  • (3) DNA Polymorphism
  • (4) The Double helix

Ans. DNA Polymorphism

Q63. Recently which space successfully launched the world smallest satellite carrying rocket

  • (1) ISRO
  • (2) CNSA
  • (3) JAXA
  • (4) NASA

Ans. NASA

Environment

Q64. Which of the following plant, grown in non-forest area has been omitted from the definition of trees in the Indian Forest (Amendment) Act 2017?

  • (1) Canes
  • (2) Bamboo
  • (3) Banana
  • (4) Palm

Ans. Bamboo

Q65. The total amount of green-house gases produced, to directly and indirectly support human activities, is referred to as

  • (1) Carbon footprint

Q66. Which of the following statement is incorrect in reference to compost?

  • (1) It is rich in organic matter and nutrients.
  • (2) The process of decomposition in pits is slowed down by earthworms.
  • (3) The waste material decomposed is farm waste material like livestock excreta, vegetable waste etc.
  • (4) In this, biodegradable waste is decomposed in pits.

Ans. The process of decomposition in pits is slowed down by earthworms.

Q67. Which among the following environmental pollutants are responsible for acid rain”?

  • (1) Carbon monoxide and Carbon dioxide
  • (2) Nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide
  • (3) Ozone and Carbon dioxide
  • (4) Carbon dioxide and Nitrogen

Ans. Nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide

Q145. Among the mathematical indices for measuring bio-diversity, which one shows the mean species diversity in a habitat at a local scale?

  • (1) Beta index
  • (2) Gamma index
  • (3) None of these
  • (4) Alpha index

Ans. Alpha index

Q68. Match List I with List Il and select the correct answer using code given below :

  • List-I (Protected  areas of India) —– List-II (Number in year 2018)
  • A Community Reserves  ——– (i)103
  • B. Conservation Reserves —–  (ii) 46
  • C. National Parks —————(iii) 544
  • D. Wild life Sanctuaries——– (iv) 76

Ans.

  • Community Reserves – 46
  • Conservation Reserves – 76
  • National Parks – 103
  • Wild life Sanctuaries – 544

 

Questions from India part of Syllabus

Q69. Haryana Government has launched a 7-Star Gam Panchayat Rainbow Scheme to give star ranking to its panchayats on the basis of Seven Social Parameters. What star ranking is given to those outstanding panchayats that make performance in improving sex ratio?

  • (1) Green Star
  • (2) Golden Star
  • (3) Silver Star
  • (4) Pink Star

Ans. Pink Star

Q70. Which State has started a scheme called “Kanya Van Samruddhi Yojana” to empower women and promote tree plantation?

  • (1) Sikkim
  • (2) Maharashtra
  • (3) Rajasthan
  • (4) Uttar Pradesh

Ans. Maharashtra

Q71. The Government of India has set a target of achieving how much solar power capacity by the year 2022 ?

  • (1) 40 Gigawatt
  • (2) 80 Giga watt
  • (3) 100 Giga watt
  • (4) 20 Giga Watt

Ans. 100 Giga watt

Q72. The Bharat Electronics Ltd. (BEL) is collaborating with ISRO to develop

  • (1) GaAs solar cells
  • (2) Nuclear technology
  • (3) C-DAC
  • (4) Agro technology

Ans. GaAs solar cells

Q73. Recently the Capital of one of the North-Eastern States has been declared as 100 Smart City by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. Which is that state?

  • (1) Meghalaya
  • (2) Nagaland
  • (3) Manipur
  • (4) Mizoram

Ans. Meghalaya

India History

Q74. Women saint Daya Bai was a disciple of:

  • (1) Saint Nimbarkacharya
  • (2) Saint Raidas
  • (3) Saint Ramcharan
  • (4) Saint Charandas

Ans. Saint Charandas

Q75. Which of the following statements about Temple Architecture are true?

  • (i) The freestanding (mortar & stone) temples are supposed to have originated in the Gupta period.
  • (ii) Ladkhan, which is one of the earliest temple belongs to Chalukya of Badami.
  • (iii) In Khajuraho temples, all the compartments of the temple are connected internally and extemally.
  • (iv) Kailashnath temple at Kanchi is the earliest freestanding temple of Dravid style.

Ans.

  • (i) The freestanding (mortar & stone) temples are supposed to have originated in the Gupta period.
  • (ii) Ladkhan, which is one of the earliest temple belongs to Chalukya of Badami.
  • (iv) Kailashnath temple at Kanchi is the earliest freestanding temple of Dravid style.

Q76. Which one of the following statements of is not true about Shreni System Ancient India?

  • (1) Quality and the price of the produced poods was determined by the concerned Shreni.
  • (2) Shreni used to control the conduct of its members
  • (3) Shirent system was prevalent only in Northern India.
  • (4) Shreni was the organisation of traders and artisans

Ans. Shirent system was prevalent only in Northern India.

Q77. Who created the department of Diwan-i-Arz in Delhi Sultanate?

  • (1) Ilutmish
  • (2) Alauddin Khilji
  • (3) Firoz Tughlaq
  • (4) Balban

Ans. Balban

Q78. Match the following:

  • Dynasties –Capital
  • A. Shungi—(i)Mahoba
  • B. Satavahan ii. Banvasi
  • C. Kadamb iii. Paithan
  • D. Chandel iv. Patliputra

Ans.

  • Shungi – Patliputra
  • Satavahan – Paithan
  • Kadamb – Banvasi
  • Chandel – Mahoba

Q79. Sixteen coins of King Menander have been found from which of the following sites ?

  • (1) Nagari
  • (2) Rairh
  • (3) Nagar
  • (4) Bairat

Ans. Bairat

Q80. Which of the following statements is/are true?

  • (A) After the Nagpur Session (1920) of Congress, the provincial Congress Committees were constituted on linguistic basis. (B) In 1948, Congress rejected the demand of formation of provinces on linguistic basis.

Ans. Both (A) and (B) are true

Q81. The revolutionary, who was not involved in Hardinge Bomb incident?

  • (1) Avadh Bihari
  • (2) Master Amir Chand
  • (3) Bhai Balmukund
  • Bhagwati Charan Vohara

Ans. Bhagwati Charan Vohara

Q82. Who played the role of mediator in Gandhi-Irwin Pact ?

  • (1) Chintamani
  • (2) Motilal Nehru
  • (3) Annie Besant
  • (4) Tej Bahadur Sapru

Ans. Tej Bahadur Sapru

Q83. The main seat (Peeth) of Varkari sect is situated at

  • (1) Varanasi
  • (2) Shringeri
  • (3) Nadia
  • (4)Pandharpur

Ans. Pandharpur

Q84. Choose the correct chronological order of the following events :

  • (1) Lucknow Pact
  • (ii) Formation of Swaraj Party
  • (iii) Jallianwala Massacre
  • (iv) Death of Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Ans.

  • (1) Lucknow Pact
  • (iii) Jallianwala Massacre
  • (iv) Death of Bal Gangadhar Tilak
  • (ii) Formation of Swaraj Party

Q85. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

  • Institution ——Founder
  • (1) Social Reform Association – Shri Ram Bajpai
  • (2) Servants of India Society – G.K. Gokhale
  • (3) Seva Samiti – H. N. Kunzru
  • (4) Social Service League- N. M. Joshi

Ans. Social Reform Association – Shri Ram Bajpai

Q86. Which of the following statements are correct in regarding to Indian Constituent Assembly?

  • (A) It was not based on Adult franchise.
  • (B) It resulted from direct elections.
  • (C) It was not a multi-party body.
  • (D) It worked through several committees.

Ans.

  • (A) It was not based on Adult franchise.
  • (D) It worked through several committees.

Q87. Which of the following election/s of the Central Legislative Assembly was/were held under the Government of India Act, 1919 ?

  • (A) 1926
  • (B) 1937
  • (C) 1945

Ans. A & C

Q88.  Who has authored “Gandhian Constitution for Free India’?

  • (1) Humayun Kabir
  • (2) Aruna Asaf Ali
  • (3) Shriman Narayan Agarwal
  • (4) Achyut Patwardhan

Ans. Shriman Narayan Agarwal

Indian Polity

Q89. “The age of a Judge of the Supreme Court of India shall be determined by such authority and in such manner as Parliament may by laws provide”, inserted by

  • (1) 18th Constitution Amendment
  • (2) 15th Constitution Amendment
  • (3) 17h Constitution Amendment
  • (4) 16 Constitution Amendment

Ans. 15th Constitution Amendment

Q90. Select the correct chronological order of the following judgements dealing with Fundamental Rights:

  • (A) Golaknath v/s State of Punjab
  • (B) Keshwanand Bharti v/s State of Kerala
  • (C) Minerva Mills v/s Union of India
  • (D) A. K. Gopalan v/s State of Madras

Ans.

  • (D) A. K. Gopalan v/s State of Madras
  • (A) Golaknath v/s State of Punjab
  • (B) Keshwanand Bharti v/s State of Kerala
  • (C) Minerva Mills v/s Union of India

Q91. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched in terms of the power of the President of India to make regulation for certain Union Territories under Article 240 of the Indian Constitution?

  • (1) 240(1)(b) – Lakshadweep
  • (2) 240(1)(c) – Puducherry
  • (3) 240(1)(d) – Daman and Diu
  • (4) 240(1)(a) – Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Ans. 240(1)(c) – Puducherry

Q92. On which of the following dates the President of India, using his powers, declared by proclamation that a grave emergency existed where the security of India was threatened by internal disturbance?

  • (1) 3 December, 1971
  • (2) 25 June, 1975
  • (3) 26 June, 1975
  • (4) 26 October, 1962

Ans. 25 June, 1975

Q93. Which of the following were members of the Swaran Singh Committee (1976) ?

  • (A) A. R. Antulay
  • (B) S. S. Ray
  • (C) Haridev Joshi
  • (D) C. M. Stephen

Ans.

  • (A) A. R. Antulay
  • (B) S. S. Ray
  • (D) C. M. Stephen

Q94. Under the Constitutional provision on a Bill, recommendation of the Governor was required, but without recommendation of Governor it was introduced in Rajasthan Legislative Assembly and passed by it and sent to the Governor, now

  • (1) The Governor can refuse to assent on the ground of the violation of Constitutional provisions,
  • (2) The Governor will send such a Bill to the assent of the President
  • (3) The Govemor or the President assents it, then the court will declare it unconstitutional on the ground of Constitutional provisions.
  • (4) where assent to that Act was given by Governor shall not be invalid.

Ans (4)

Q144. Match List – I with List – Il and select the correct answer from code given below:

  • List – 1     List – II
  • (Books)    (Authors)
  • (A) Atul Kohli ——–(i) Divide and Quit
  • (B) Granville Austin ——-(ii) The Success of India’s Democracy
  • (C) Penderal Moon ——–(iii) The Republic of India : Development of its Laws and Constitution
  • (D) Alan Gledhill————(iv) Working Democratic Constitution : A History of the Indian Experience

Ans.

  • Kohli – The Success of India’s Democracy
  • Granville Austin – Working a Democratic Constitution : A History of the Indian Experience
  • Penderal Moon – Divide and Quit
  • Alan Gledhill – The Republic of India : Development of its Laws and Constitution

Q143. Which of the following terminology is/are mentioned in the Preamble of the Right to Information Act, 2005?

  • (A) Transparency of Information
  • (B) Revelation of Information
  • (C) Informed Citizenry
  • (D) Paramountey of the democratic ideal

Ans. All of the Above

Q95. Under Rule 377 of Rules and Procedur and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha the maximum number of matters that can be raised by Lok Sabha members in one day are

  • (1) 20
  • (2) 22
  • (3) 19
  • (4) 21

Ans. 20

Q96. Which of the following are Financial Committees of Indian Parliament?

  • (A) Estimates Committee
  • (B) Public Accounts Committee
  • (C) Committee on Public Undertakings
  • (D) Joint Committee on Salaries and Allowance for Members of Parliament

Ans.

  • (A) Estimates Committee
  • (B) Public Accounts Committee
  • (C) Committee on Public Undertakings

Q97. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India can be removed from his office in like manner as

  • (1) Attorney General of India
  • (2) Judge of the Supreme Court
  • (3) Chairman of Union Public Service Commission
  • (4) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Ans. Judge of the Supreme Court

Q98. Central Vigilance Commission was set up on the recommendation of

  • (1) Kriplani Committee
  • (2) Santhanam Committee
  • (3) Administrative Reforms  Commission of India
  • (4) Gorwala Report

Ans. Santhanam Committee

Q99. In which country the concept of Public Interest Litigation was originated ?

  • (1) United States of America
  • (2) Australia
  • (3) Canada
  • (4) United Kingdom

Ans.United States of America

Q100. The President of India addresses the Parliament under Article 87 of the Indian Constitution

  • (1) in a joint meeting of both Houses of Parliament.
  • (2) in a joint session of both Houses of Parliament.
  • (3) both Houses of Parliament assembled together
  • (4) in a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament.

Ans.both Houses of Parliament assembled together. (As per RPSC)

Q101. Consider following statements about Electoral Bond Scheme 2018:

  • (A) The aim of this scheme is to bring about transparency in the funding process of political parties.
  • (B) Only the political parties recognized by the Election Commission which secured not less than two percent of the votes polled in the last general election to the House of People or the Legislative Assembly of the State shall be eligible to receive the Electoral Bonds.
  • (C) Electoral Bonds shall be valid for fifteen calendar days from the date of issue.
  • (D) The Electoral Bond deposited by an eligible political party in its account shall be credited on the same day

Which of the above statements are correct

Ans.

  • (A) The aim of this scheme is to bring about transparency in the funding process of political parties.
  • (C) Electoral Bonds shall be valid for fifteen calendar days from the date of issue.
  • (D) The Electoral Bond deposited by an eligible political party in its account shall be credited on the same day

Economy: India

Q102. Which one of the following is not included in the revenue account of Union Budget?

  • Tax Recipts
  • Interest Receipts
  • Profits & dividends of Government Departments & Undertakings
  • Small Savings

Ans. Small Savings

Q103. Eleventh Five Year Plan emphasised on

  • Faster and more inclusive growth
  • Economic Growth & Human Development
  • Economic Growth & Social Development
  • Faster, Sustainable & More Inclusive Growth

Ans. Faster and more inclusive growth

Q104. Assertion (A): Cost push inflation is caused by shift in aggregate supply curve.

Reason (R): Shift in aggregate supply curve takes place because of increase in wages.

Ans. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Q105. The most volatile part of the Organised Money Market in India is

  • (1) Commercial Bill Market
  • (2) Call Money Market
  • (3) Government Security Market
  • (4) Certificate of Deposit Market

Ans. Call Money Market

Q106. What has been kept under the purview of Goods and Services Tax (GST)?

  • Electricity
  • Alcohol for human consumption
  • Petroleum Products
  • Ghee

Ans. Ghee

Q142. Which of the following fixed the four percent inflation target in India with tolerance level of +/- 2 percent for the period 2016 to 2021?

  • (1) Government of India
  • (2) NITI Aayog
  • (3) Fourteenth Finance Commission
  • (4) Reserve Bank of India

Ans. Government of India

Q107. In terms of the share in Foreign Direct Investment Equity inflows, in India during 2016-17, which of the following countries is on the top ?

  • (1) Singapore
  • (2) Japan
  • (3) U.S.A
  • (4) Mauritius

Ans. Mauritius

Q108. Why companies go for business process re-engineering with the help of technology ?

  • (1) IT being leveraged to provide  competitive edge in products and services at lower costs.
  • (2) The pace of change has accelerated with the liberalisation of economies world over.
  • (3) Customers’ demand and expectations are continuously increasing
  • (4) All of these

Ans. All of these

Sports

Q109. The team of China has won the 2018 BWF Thomas Cup (30 edition). It defeated the team of which country in the finals ?

  • (1) Japan
  • (2) France
  • (3) India
  • (4) Thailand

Ans. Japan

Q110. Bangladesh has won the Women’s Cricket Asia Cup Trophy (Twenty-20 Tournament) held in Malaysia in June 2018. Which team was defeated in the finals:

  • (1) India
  • (2) Sri Lanka
  • (3) Thailand
  • (4) Pakistan

Ans. India

Q111. Recently India’s Deepika Kumari won the gold medal in Women’s Recurve event at the Archery World Cup (Stage III). Where was this World Cup Competition held ?

  • (1) Cortina
  • (2) Salt Lake City
  • (3) Samson
  • (4) Berlin

Ans. Salt Lake City

Persons/Places in NEWS

Q112. An Indian-American woman has been named as the Chief Finance Officer of General Motors, the largest automaker of the United States of America. What is her name?

  • (1) Deepika Suryaburman
  • (2) Devika Saraswati
  • (3) Decpali Surlaxmi
  • (4) Divya Suryadevra

Ans. Divya Suryadevra

Q113. Why was Sharad Kumar, former Director General of National Investigation Agency, was in news recently?

  • (1) He has been appointed a Vigilance Commissioner in the Central Vigilance Commission
  • (2) He has been appointed as member of the National Human Rights Commission
  • (3) He has been appointed as member of the Union Public Service Commission.
  • (4) He has been appointed as advisor to the Govemor of Jammu and Kashmir

Ans. He has been appointed a Vigilance Commissioner in the Central Vigilance Commission

Q114. On 24th June, 2018, India’s team of four Para-swimmers crossed the English Channel in record time of 12 hours and 26 minutes. Out of them, one was from Rajasthan. Who was he?

  • (1) Jagdish Chandra
  • (2) Virendra Kumar
  • (3) Satyendra Singh
  • (4) Mahesh Chandra

Ans. Satyendra Singh

 

Q115. After appointment of Justice Indu Malhotra, the number of Women Judges in the Supreme Court of India has reached two. Who is the other woman judge ?

  • (1) Justice R. Bhanumati
  • (2) Justice Gyan Sudha Mishra
  • (3) Justice Sangeetha Prakash
  • (4) Justice Rooma Paul

Ans. Justice R. Bhanumati

Q116. Yousuf Saleem of Pakistan has been in news recently. Who is he?

  • (1) He is the captain of the Kabaddi team of Pakistan
  • (2) He is the youngest player of the Pakistan Cricket team
  • (3) He is the captain of Hockey team of Pakistan.
  • (4) He is the first ever visually impaired judge of Pakistan

Ans. He is the first ever visually impaired judge of Pakistan

Q117. Dr. Krishna Jakhar of Rajasthan has been awarded the Sahitya Akadami Prize for Rajasthani translation 2017 She is awarded this prize for which of her work of translation ?

  • (1) Bhint
  • (2) Aadane Dharyodi Aankhanya
  • (3) Toba Tek Singh
  • (4) Gatha Tista Par Ri

Ans. Gatha Tista Par Ri

Q118. 23 writers have been selected for Sahitya Akademi Bal Sahitya Puraskar 2018. Who among them is selected for the Rajasthani Language ?

  • (1) Dr. Jyoti Punj
  • (2) Mohan Alok
  • (3) C.L. Sankhlav
  • (4) Dr. Chetan Swami

Ans. C.L. Sankhlav

Q119. Where was the historic meeting between US President Donald Trump and North Korea’s Leader Kim Jong Un was held in June 2018?

  • (1) Seoul
  • (2) Singapore
  • (3) Taipei
  • (4) Pyongyang

Ans. Singapore

Q120. The 220 edition of the Malabar Trilateral Naval exercise was held in June 2018. Beside India which other two countries took part in this exercise?

  • (1) Russia and Bangladesh
  • (2) Nepal and Vietnam
  • (3) Japan and United States of America
  • (4) Russia and japan

Ans. Japan and United States of America

India & World Geography

Q121. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using code given below: List-

  • List-II (Mountain Peak) ———–(Location/Country)
  • A Elbrus ———(i) New Zealand
  • B. Kilimanjaro ——(ii) U.S.A.
  • C. Mt. Cook ——–(iii) Tanzania
  • D. McKinley——– (iv) Russia

Ans.

  • Elbrus – Russia
  • Kilimanjaro – Tanzania
  • Mt. Cook – New Zealand
  • McKinley – U.S.A.

Q122. Match List I with List Il and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

  • List List- (Canal)  List – (Connects)
  • A. Kiel  –     (i) Mediterranean sea & Red sea
  • B. Soo          (ii) Elbe estuary & Baltic sea
  • C. Panama (ii) Atlantic Ocean & Pacific ocean
  • D. Suez (iv) Lake superior & lake Huron

Ans.

  • Kiel – Elbe estuary & Baltic sea
  • Soo – Lake superior & lake Huron
  • Panama – Atlantic Ocean & Pacific ocean
  • Suez – Mediterranean sea & Red sea

Q123. Which of the following mountain peak is not situated in Eastern Ghats?

  • (1) Salher
  • (2) Sinkram Gutta
  • (3) Madugula Konda
  • (4) Gali Konda

Ans. Salher

Q124. Which is not a correct match?

  • Shifting Agriculture .            State
  • (1) Masha  ———-Himachal Pradesh
  • (2) Poonam——– Kerala
  • (3) Jhoom ———– Assam
  • (4) Pondu—————Odisha

Ans. Masha – Himachal Pradesh

Q125. Which is not a correct match!

  • Industrial Region ————-Country
  • United Kingdom————— (1) Southern New England
  • Italy ————–(2) Po Valley
  • Japan————(3) Kanto Plains
  • Germany —————-(4) Ruhr

Ans.

  • United Kingdom – Southern New England

Reasoning & Maths

Q126. Consider the following: Statement:

Should there be recruitment in Government service on the basis of past academic performance rather than through competitive examinations?

Arguments :

  • 1. Yes, it will be beneficial for those candidates who are unable to bear the expenses of competitive examinations.
  • 2. No, the past academic performance cannot be made the basis of recruitment because there is no uniformity in the assessment by the Universities

Which one is/are the strong argument’s?

Ans. Only 2

Q127. Statements :

  • All branches are flowers.
  • All flowers are leaves.

Conclusions :

  • I. All branches are leaves.
  • II. Some leaves are branches
  • III. All flowers are branches.
  • IV. All leaves are branches.

Ans. Only I & II follow

Q128.  In this question, a statement is followed by two assumptions:

  • Statements : Though he is fat yet he runs fast.
  • Assumptions
    • 1: Fat people have weak muscles.
    • II: Fat people generally cannot run fast. 

Then which of the answer is correct?

  • (1) Only Il is implied in the statement.
  • (2) Both I and Il are implied in the statement
  • (3) Neither 1, nor II is implied in the statement
  • (4) Only 1 is implied in the statement.

Ans. Only II

Q129. If 4+5 – 2 – 33 and 10+12 -5 =119 then 6+8-3 = ?

Ans. 73

Explanation: 4*4 +5*5 – 2*2*2 = 33. Similarly 2 and so 6*6 +8*8 – 3*3*3 = 73

Q130. Next term of the letter series

  • YB/W     WD/S       UF/O    SH/K

Ans. QJ/G

Q131. Pick out the odd one

  • (1) VXYw
  • (2) MpOn
  • (3) Svut
  • (4) Adcb

Ans. VxYw

Q132. A statement with two courses of action is given below. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information given in the statement, decide which of the suggested course of action logically follows?

Statement : A large number of employees have gone on a mass casual leave in protest against the company’s new recruitment policy.

Courses of action :

  • 1. The company should immediately withdraw the new recruitment policy
  • II. All these employees should immediately be suspended from their service

ANS. Only 1 follows

Q133. Mr. A meets Mr. B. B is the father of a son C and a daughter D. E is the mother of A. C is married and has one son. E the daughter-in-law of B. How is A related to B?

  • (1) Grandson
  • (2) Son
  • (3) Nephew
  • (4) Uncle

Ans. Grandson

Q134. If x. y. Z are natural numbers, then the number of different solutions of the equation x+y+z=6 are:

ans. 10

Q135. The product of three consecutive positive numbers is divided by each of them in turn, the sum of the three quotients will be 74. What will be sum of three numbers?

ans. 15

Q136. Two alloys are made by gold and copper in the ratio of 7 : 2 and 7: 11 respectively. Same quantity of both alloys are mixed and third alloy is made. In this third alloy, ratio between gold and copper is equal to

  • (1) 7:12
  • (2) 14:13
  • (3) 2:11
  • (4) 7:5

Ans. 7:5

Q137. On a construction site, men, women and children are working in the ratio of 9:4:1. Their wages are in the ratio of 8:5: 3. If 60 women are working on this site, then total daily wages of all persons is 2.850. Daily wages of a child is equal to

Ans. 6

Q138. The difference between the compund interest and simple interest on a certain compound sum at 10% per annum for 2 years is 874. Find the sum

  • (1) 17480
  • (2) 87,400
  • (3) 43,450
  • (4) 43,700

Ans. 87,400

Q139. Sum of amount at certain rate of compound interest doubles in 3 years. In 9 years it will be k times of the original principal. What is the value of k?

Ans. 8

Q140. The population of a small city is 926100. If it increases at the rate of 5% per annum. What was the population 2 years ago ?

(1) 840000

Q141. In a code language,

  • 1: “lew nas hsi ploy”means “she is bringing coffee”.
  • II “wir sut lew ploy” means “he is bringing tea”.
  • III. “sut lim nas” means “tea and coffee”.

Then which word has been used for “he”?

  • (1) sut
  • (2) lew
  • (3) ploy
  • (4) wir

Ans. wir

Q147. The difference between the number of triangles and number of parallelograms in the following figure is :

  • 3
  • 0
  • 1
  • 2

ans. 4

Reference:  RPSC Answer Key – Detailed Explanation

Q148.The following pie charts provide the details about the breakup of the expenditure of a family under different heads and its savings in the month of June and July of 2018

 

By what percentage does the total expenditure on transport and food in July exceed the same in June ? (approximately)

  • (1) 27%
  • (2) 45%
  • (3) 36%
  • (4)39%

Ans. 39%

Q149 & Q150  are based upon following table which shows number of registered vehicles (in lakhs) in a city.

Q149. If percentage of increase of total number of vehicles from 2000-01 to 2010-11 is made equal to the percentage of increase of total vehicles from 1990-91 to 2000-01, then total number of vehicles in 2010-11 would be equal to (in lakhs):

  • (1)43.36
  • (2) 42
  • (3) 48.15
  • (4) 42.5

Ans 43.36%

Q.150 Which vehicle has increased minimum in percentage from 2000-01 to 2010-11?

  • (1) Others
  • (2) Bus
  • (3) Scooter
  • (4) Truck

Ans. Bus


  • RPSC RAS 2018 Question Paper: PDF
  • RPSC RAS 2018 Answer Key: PDF